• FiniteBanjo
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      5 months ago
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      It evolved from peccatum Sodomiticum which is latin for the Sin of Sodom.

      • afraid_of_zombies
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        5 months ago
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        Sure. The Bible was written in Greek and Hebrew with some loan words from Aramaic and like 9 words or so, not related to this, from Latin.

        • FiniteBanjo
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          5 months ago
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          You’re now arguing that the bible in Hebrew doesn’t mention sinning taking place in Sodom?

            • FiniteBanjo
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              5 months ago
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              Then by your argument, the bible contains no English words because it was written in hebrew and therefore any quotes from the bible not made directly in hebrew are false. Sodomy is directly the same in meaning as the Sin of Sodom as it has evolved from exactly that phrase and has kept it’s meaning consistently.

              • afraid_of_zombies
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                5 months ago
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                I don’t know what you want from me. You mention sodomy in context of the bible and I pointed out that word isn’t in it. It also isn’t in it in Hebrew. Yes there is a passage that refers to the sins of Sodom but not sodomy. If you know Biblical Hebrew it would be easier to explain. Basically the difference between saying X is tall and saying X-like as a means of saying tall. One is a property of something and the other that something has that property so much it is basically a way of saying that property.

                Not sure why this matters. Even if you are a believer you don’t have to go by some vague gestures of Ezekiel. You want to be homophobic, there are better passages to argue your disgusting point